I’ve been reading the blog “Et tu, Jen?” for a few months since I discovered it. She is one of the few theists I have found that can articulate her beliefs in a cogent manner that doesn’t insult the intelligence of an atheist or agnostic. This is primarily because she is a former atheist, turned catholic. Her conversion story is interesting, but more interesting at the moment is an entry she posted today about someone else’s story – John C. Wright.
I identify with John in many ways – reason is important in the decision process, logic is a tool, there are some problems with defining what is supernatural since it is something of an oxymoron given a framework of naturalism. His conversion brought up a question that Jen addressed earlier on her blog, though I never had time to resolve some of the problems raised by it:
Is there any proof/event/circumstance that would allow a discerning, reasonable person to believe in a god?
This is an important question, since the fundamental assertion of most agnostics (and hopefully most atheists/freethinkers/etc.) is that they are open to the possibility of a god existing, but have not seen sufficient evidence to believe so. If there is a systemic bias in our process of reasoning/philosophy that cannot logically allow the possibility of discovering a god, then we run in to a quandary. God could then exist and would be undiscoverable to the reasoning person. This is a bias that is inexcusable if we are to consider reason to be important simultaneously and equally with being open to the possibility of theism.
At the same time, I think it is worth examining the question of how such a system would logically exclude god. Does this system exclude god because he is logically contradictory as a concept (e.g., excluded for a good reason), or simply because the logical structures/arguments themselves contain a bias introduced by someone who doesn’t want to believe in god?
This brings me to the scrutiny of John’s personal conversion experience: He claims various miraculous non-coincidences (providence?) which I can concede for the sake of the argument. God caused them. Would they be enough to convince me? Would I have to go through the same experience to be convinced myself? This is one problem I’ve been considering myself. Could someone else’s conversion story that measures up to the standard of what it would take to convince me personally if it happened to me be capable of convincing me vicariously through their experience? This story comes close, but there are a few things that leave me niggling with suspicion that perhaps his claim to rigorous thought and consideration is not as it seems:
- John characterizes atheism/agnosticism as shallow; christianity as mature, developed. This is something that happens when anyone sees a more enlightened or alternative view that also makes sense under a particular framework of thought – it’s a revelation of sorts, but I don’t know where he gets the idea it is more mature. I think the level and complexity of thought is fairly equal on both sides of the debate here, though there are immature thinkers on both sides as well. I think such characterizations are really irrelevant to the conversation: show me your proof, not your impressions.
- John places great importance on having arrived at a conclusion. He uses a lot of language about judgment, finding the truth (of atheism at one time, now disilliusioned of this into christianity), having found a conclusion, etc. – all of which I consider hogwash from my personally agnostic perspective. Though of course agnosticism is a position I take provisionally – e.g., it’s the best I can come up with right now, though I don’t consider it the ultimate solution or appropriate position once all is said and done. I have a long way to go in philosophy myself, but it seems to me that he reached a lot of conclusions early in his search, which raises suspicion that his search was not thorough/comprehensive/rigorous as he claims it.
- Primary reasons for conversion have to do with a question presented to him recently about whether his axioms could allow for the possibility of god in the first place. He seems to not have run into this question after “35 years of study” in philosophy. I’ve run into it after less than 3 years. While this is no claim to personal thoroughness, I think 3 decades is a long time to not run into the question of whether your framework of axioms allows for a god or not, since this is a fundamental test of the framework’s propositional flexibility.
But still, I come back to the test which he used: ask God for a sign, and have it granted. This is my test also, though he was convinced by a heart attack in close proximity to the prayer – I consider this to be a very natural and probable event considering that the number one killer in the U.S. is “diseases of the circulatory system” (read: heart attacks!) according to WHO mortality data.
In any case, some of the things he later mentions I find more convincing – visions and religious experiences that I trust he is being honest in saying they were not hallucinations or dreams. If this is true, then he has a case on his hands for me. Still, as he mentioned before, there are things which force me to think that he is simply deluding himself in some way. As one of Hume’s principles goes, it is more likely that there is some rational explanation such as delusion or hallucination, than that a witness’s story of a divine miracle is really true in the ontological sense (i.e., it really happened that way, they perceived the event correctly as supernatural). I guess this answers one of my earlier questions: It is unlikely I will be convinced by a vicariously described conversion experience. I need my own.
Back to the more important question though: does my own framework of belief, basic set of axioms, logically preclude the possibility of god on grounds which are acceptable? By acceptable, I mean that the possibility is not precluded because of an inadvertant (or perhaps even purposeful) systemic bias in the logic/argument created by a human who is unsure of god’s existence?
I’m not entirely sure. I still have to answer the question of how I could be convinced. It is difficult to imagine since I really don’t have a conception of god that really makes logical sense to me, other than a deistic/benign one. Food for thought….